trial examination 2010 upper six biology paper 1 · pdf filewhich diagram represents the...

Trial Examination 2010 Upper Six Biology Paper 1

SMJK PEREMPUAN CHINA PULAU PINANG SMJK PEREMPUAN CHINA PULAU PINANG














Question Paper 1

Name: ……………………………………………. ( ) U6S……..

Attempt all the multiple choice questions below. Shade the best answer or solution in the attached answer sheet.

1. Which combination of features is found in most plant and animal cells? A. plasma membrane, lysosome, Golgi apparatus B. cytoplasm, mitochondria, ribosomes C. rough ER, nucleus, centrioles D. plastids, cytoplasm, nucleus 2. What is the size range for the diameters of most plant and animal cells? A. 100 nm to 1 µm B. 1 µm to 10 µm

C. 10 µm to 100 µm D. 100 µm to 1 mm

3. The drawing below shows a short section of a DNA molecule.

What is labelled by I, II and III?

I II III

A. 3’ end purine hydrogen bond

B. 5’ end pyrimidine covalent bond

C. 3’ end pyrimidine hydrogen bond

D. 5’ end purine covalent bond

BIOLOGY

School Level Examination

1 hours & 45 minutes

964


4. Which of the following could be a function of a membrane protein? A. Energy storage B. Enzymatic activity

C. Oxygen uptake D. Thermal insulation

5. In which compounds would a double bond link carbon to oxygen (C=O)?

I. Amino acid II. Fatty acid III. Glycerol

A. I and II only B. II and III only

C. I and III only D. I, II and III

6. Why is the genetic code described as degenerate? A. Some codons can cause translation to stop. B. More than one codon can represent one amino acid. C. The genetic code is the same in all organisms. D. Codons can change through mutation. 7. What is the maximum number of fatty acids that can be condensed with glycerol? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four 8. Which of the following shows the correct match?

I Uses RuBP and produces PGA (a) Cyclic photophosphorylation

II Uses ATP and NADPH (b) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation

III Forms NADPH (c) Carbon dioxide fixation

IV Produces ATP and NADPH (d) Formation of PGAL

V Produces only ATP (e) Transfers H+ and electrons to NADP

+

I II III IV V

A. (c) (d) (a) (e) (b)

B. (b) (a) (e) (d) (c)

C. (d) (c) (a) (b) (e)

D. (c) (d) (e) (b) (a)

9. Which diagram represents the action spectrum of photosynthesis?


10. Within the mitochondria, what compound is produced through oxidation of fatty acids? A. Acetyl-CoA B. Acetylcholine C. Oxaloacetate D. Pyruvate 11. Which of the following features is/are present in mitochondria but not in chloroplasts?

I. DNA and ribosomes II. Outer and inner membranes III. Cristae

A. I only B. III only C. I and III only D. II and III only 12. The diagram below shows the life cycle of Dryopteris. What do P, Q and R represent?

P Q R

A. Gametophyte Meiosis Sporophyte

B. Gametophyte Sporophyte Meiosis

C. Sporophyte Gametophyte Meiosis

D. Sporophyte Meiosis Gametophyte

13. In the lac operon model for lactose metabolism in prokaryotes, what is active when the

operon is turned off ? A. Regulator gene B. RNA polymerase

C. Promoter region D. Structural genes

14. Colchicine disrupts microtubule assembly. What activity would be most affected by

colchicine? A. Photosynthesis B. Replication

C. Movement of chromosomes to the poles during mitosis D. Active transport by membrane proteins

15. Why is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) important in early pregnancy? A. It is required for equal cell divisions in the growing embryo. B. It stimulates the ovary to continue production of estrogen and progesterone. C. It increases the rate of cell division in the embryo. D. It promotes growth of the inner cell mass within the embryo. 16. Which sequence will result in the formation of a blood clot? A. damaged cells → clotting factors → thrombin → fibrin B. damaged cells → red blood cells → clotting factors → fibrinogen C. red blood cells → clotting factors → damaged cells → fibrinogen D. red blood cells → clotting factors → thrombin → fibrinogen


I II III

Rhesus positive male

Rhesus negative male

Rhesus positive female

Rhesus negative female

17. The pedigree below shows which members of a family were Rhesus positive (■ and ●)

and Rhesus negative (□ and ○). The allele for Rhesus positive blood (Rh+

) is dominant

over the allele for Rhesus negative blood (R-).

Which are possible genotypes of the individuals numbered I, II and III?

I II III

A. Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

-

B. Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

- Rh

+ Rh

+

C. Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

+ Rh

- Rh

+ Rh

-

D. Rh

+ Rh

- Rh

+ Rh

- Rh

+ Rh

+

18. How many ATP molecules (net yield) are produced per molecule of glucose as a direct

result of glycolysis? A. 2 B. 4 C. 10 D. 38 19. Which enzymes are needed to produce recombinant plasmids that are used in gene

transfer? A. DNA polymerase and ligase B. DNA polymerase and restriction enzymes C. Restriction enzymes and ligase D. Helicase and restriction enzymes 20. Which sequence of events correctly describes the destruction of pathogens in body

tissues by phagocytic leucocytes?

A. amoeboid motion endocytosis chemical recognition enzymatic digestion

B. chemical recognition amoeboid motion enzymatic digestion endocytosis

C. amoeboid motion chemical recognition enzymatic digestion endocytosis

D. chemical recognition amoeboid motion endocytosis enzymatic digestion 21. Atherosclerosis is a condition where arteries become progressively blocked and lose their

ability to stretch. Which of the following is least likely to occur as a result of this condition?

A. Occasional reduced oxygen supply to the brain B. A build up of metabolic waste products in the tissues C. Higher blood pressure D. Reduced blood flow to the heart 22. What type of aneuploidy is shown by an individual having a genome of 2n + 3? A. Monosomy B. Trisomy C. Tetrasomy D. Pentasomy 23. The following events occur during muscle contraction. Which one of the following shows

the correct sequence of events during muscle contraction? I. Hydrolysis of ATP molecules II. Impulse transmission along the T-tubules to the sarcoplasmic vesicles III. Formation of cross-bridges between myosin and actin filaments IV. Ratchet mechanism action develops V. Secretion of Ca

2+ ions by the sarcoplasmic vesicles

VI. The intake of Ca2+

ions by sarcoplasmic reticulum


A. I, V, II, VI, III, IV B. II, V, I, III, IV, VI

C. II, III, I, V, IV, VI D. V, IV, III, I, II, VI

24. During which phase does a population reach the carrying capacity of the environment? A. I B. II C. III D. IV 25. The diagram below is a karyotype of a human.

Which statement about the karyotype is correct? A. Non-disjunction has occurred and the individual is female. B. Non-disjunction has not occurred and the individual is female. C. Non-disjunction has occurred and the individual is male. D. Non-disjunction has not occurred and the individual is male. 26. The diagram below shows the structure of testis tissue as seen using a light microscope.

Which is the primary spermatocyte?


27. In garden peas, the pairs of alleles coding for seed shape and seed colour are unlinked. The allele for smooth seeds (S) is dominant over the allele for wrinkled seeds (s). The allele for yellow seeds (Y) is dominant over the allele for green seeds (y). If a plant of genotype Ssyy is crossed with a plant of genotype ssYy, which offspring are recombinants?

A. SsYy and Ssyy B. SsYy and ssYy

C. SsYy and ssyy D. Ssyy and ssYy

28. What constitutes a linkage group? A. Genes carried on the same chromosome B. Genes whose loci are on different autosomes C. Genes controlling a polygenic characteristic D. Alleles for the inheritance of ABO blood groups 29. When red shorthorn cattle are crossed with white shorthorn cattle the offspring are roan, a

colour that has both red and white hairs. What does this cross illustrate? A. Co-dominance B. Multiple alleles

C. Sex linkage D. Mutation

30. Which of the following characteristics can be used to construct a dichotomous key in order

to distinguish between a nematode, an annelid and a snake? A. Segmentation and dorsal nerve cord B. Segmentation and bilateral symmetry C. Radial symmetry and vermiform body shape D. Radial symmetry and dorsal nerve cord 31. What is the function of DNA polymerase I?

A. To add appropriate nucleotides in the 3′ 5′ direction B. To remove the RNA primers and replace them with DNA C. To join together the Okazaki fragments D. To join together both strands of DNA to the histones 32. Which statement describes how allosteric enzymes work?

Reversible Competitive inhibition End-product inhibition Active and inactive forms

A. X X √ √

B. √ X √ √

C. √ √ X √

D. X √ X X

Key: √ = yes X = no

33. In the Sailfin Molly fish, gold colour (g) is recessive to normal colour (G). When a gold

coloured fish was crossed with a normal colour fish, 55 of the offspring were normal colour and 45 were gold colour. One hypothesis is that the normal parent was heterozygous. The Chi-squared value is 1. The table below shows the probability values. Which of the following is the correct response?


A. Accept the hypothesis because the Chi-squared value is less than 3.84. B. Reject the hypothesis because the probability is less than 0.05. C. Accept the hypothesis because the Chi-squared value is less than 5.99. D. Reject the hypothesis because there is not enough evidence. 34. What name is given to an organism that ingests dead organic matter? A. Autotroph B. Detritivore C. Herbivore D. Parasite 35. Which series of ecological units is in the correct order of decreasing biomass? A. Ecosystem, population, community, individual B. Biosphere, ecosystem, population, individual C. Community, biosphere, population, individual D. Biosphere, ecosystem, population, community 36. What is the order of the processes in fertilization?

A. Softening of ovum membrane Penetration by sperm Sperm acrosome reaction Cortical reaction by ovum

B. Sperm acrosome reaction Cortical reaction by ovum Softening of ovum

membrane Penetration by sperm

C. Penetration by sperm Cortical reaction by ovum Sperm acrosome reaction Softening of ovum membrane

D Sperm acrosome reaction Softening of ovum membrane Penetration by sperm Cortical reaction by ovum

37. What is the usual order of events in the germination of a typical starchy seed?

38. Which factors can cause a decrease in a population? 39. In a nerve impulse, what happens at the site following the highest point of the action

potential? A. Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na

+ is pumped in.

B. Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na+

diffuses out. C. Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K

+ is pumped out.

D. Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K+ diffuses out.

Gibberellin Water absorbed Amylase produced Starch digested

A. 1 2 3 4

B. 4 1 2 3

C. 2 1 3 4

D. 3 4 1 2


40. How does mitosis produce two genetically identical nuclei? A. By separation of homologous pairs of chromosomes B. By separation of pairs of chromatids C. By division of the cytoplasm equally in two D. By division of the centrioles in two 41. Which part of the nephron shown below is impermeable to water molecule? A. I B. II C. III D. IV 42. The following steps are involved in the genetic engineering. Rearrange them in a correct

sequence. I Cleave / cut the plasmid and the human DNA with the same restriction enzyme. II Screen for bacteria that contain recombinant DNA. III Insert DNA fragment into the cut bacterial plasmid. IV Isolate the bacterial plasmid and human DNA. V Transformation and amplification.

A. III, IV, I, II and V B. IV, III, I, V and II

C. IV, I, III, V and II D. I, IV, III, V and II

43. A researcher captures 100 sparrows (a small bird), tags them and then releases them.

One week later, the researcher recaptures 50 sparrows, 20 of which have tags on them. What is the size of the sparrow population?

A. 50 birds B. 250 birds C. 350 birds D. 500 birds 44. A certain gene codes for a polypeptide that is 120 amino acids long. Approximately how

many nucleotides long is the mRNA that codes for this polypeptide likely to be? A. 30 B. 40 C. 360 D. 480


45. Which of the following statements explain natality? I. The number of births per thousand individuals in the population in a year II. The number of mortality per thousand individuals in the population in a year III. The number of eggs produced in a reproductive cycle IV. The number of offspring produced by the individual female per unit time

A. I and II B. I, III and IV

C. II and IV D. II, III and IV

46. What is the difference between the light and dark bands visible in electron micrographs of skeletal muscle?

A. Light bands contain sarcoplasmic reticulum and dark bands do not. B. Dark bands contain sarcomeres and light bands do not. C. Light bands contain mitochondria and dark bands do not. D. Dark bands contain myosin fibres and light bands do not. 47. How is the proton gradient generated in chloroplasts during photosynthesis? A. Flow of electrons from carrier to carrier in the thylakoid membrane causes pumping of protons across the thylakoid membrane. B. Light causes protons to flow through protein channels in the thylakoid membrane. C. Light splits water molecules in the stroma, causing the release of protons. D. Protons are pumped across the thylakoid membrane using energy from ATP. 48. What are the two components of an ecosystem? A. species and habitat B. species and community C. habitat and abiotic environment D. community and abiotic environment 49. The diagram below shows a short section of DNA molecule before and after replication. If

the nucleotides used to replicate the DNA were radioactive, which strands in the replicated molecules would be radioactive?

A. II and III only B. I and III only

C. I and II only D. I, II, III and IV

50. Which of the following plasma components is not normally removed from the blood by

ultrafiltration in the kidney? A. Urea B. Salts C. Water D. Proteins

Prepared by Madam YEAP CHEE BENG

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