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SULIT 1119/1 1119/1 B.Inggeris Kertas 1 September 1 3/4 jam PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA SEKOLAH MENENGAH MALAYSIA (PKPSM) CAWANGAN MELAKA DENGAN KERJASAMA JABATAN PELAJARAN MELAKA ____________________________________________________ PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2010 BAHASA INGGERIS Kertas 1 Satu jam empat puluh lima minit JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU Arahan 1. 2. 3. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi dua bahagian: Bahagian A dan Bahagian B. Jawab kedua-dua bahagian. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 45 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A dan satu jam untuk Bahagian B. Instructions 1. 2. 3. This question paper consists of two sections: Section A and Section B. Answer both sections. You are advised to spend 45 minutes on Section A and one hour on Section B. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 3 halaman bercetak http://edu.joshuatly.com/ http://www.joshuatly.com/

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Page 1: [Edu.joshuatly.com] melaka spm trial 2010 english set 1 (w ans)

SULIT 1119/1

1

1119/1 B.Inggeris Kertas 1 September 1 3/4 jam

PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA

SEKOLAH MENENGAH MALAYSIA (PKPSM) CAWANGAN MELAKA DENGAN KERJASAMA

JABATAN PELAJARAN MELAKA

____________________________________________________

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN

SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2010

BAHASA INGGERIS

Kertas 1

Satu jam empat puluh lima minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan

1.

2.

3.

Kertas soalan ini mengandungi dua bahagian: Bahagian A dan Bahagian B.

Jawab kedua-dua bahagian.

Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 45 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian Adan satu jam untuk Bahagian B.

Instructions

1.

2.

3.

This question paper consists of two sections: Section A and Section B.

Answer both sections.

You are advised to spend 45 minutes on Section A and one hour on Section B.

Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 3 halaman bercetak

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SULIT 1119/1

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Section A : Directed Writing

[35 marks]

As a concerned teenager, you are worried about the increasing truancy problem in schools. Write a letter to a local newspaper stating the possible reasons for truancy and giving suggestions on how to overcome the problem. Use the following notes to write your letter.

When writing the letter, you must: provide the following:

- sender’s address - date - salutation - opening - closing - signature

use all the notes given Note: For your letter, you will receive up to 15 marks for the format and content points and up to 20 marks for the quality of your writing.

Peer influence Lack of attention from

parents

Disinterest in learning

Stress

Monitoring by teachers

Have interesting

school activities

Organize awareness campaigns

Hold motivational

talks

Give warnings Send for counselling

courses

Strict punishment

Dialogues with parents

REASONS

SUGGESTIONS

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Section B : Continuous Writing

[50 marks]

Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics.

1 Describe an unforgettable person.

2 Write a story ending: “… Thank goodness, I was all right.”

3 Mobile phones benefit our lives. Do you agree?

4 Things that I would do for my family.

5 Teachers

KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

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SULIT 1119/2

1

Nama: ________________________________________

NO. KAD PENGENALAN I.C. NUMBER

ANGKA GILIRAN/ INDEX NUMBER

1119/2 B.Inggeris Paper 2 September 1 1/4 jam

PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA

SEKOLAH MENENGAH MALAYSIA (PKPSM) CAWANGAN MELAKA DENGAN KERJASAMA

JABATAN PELAJARAN MELAKA __________________________________________________

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2010

BAHASA INGGERIS Kertas 2

Satu jam lima belas minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Tulis nombor kad pengenalan dan angka giliran anda pada ruang yang disediakan. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi empat bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B, Bahagian C dan Bahagian D. Jawab semua bahagian dalam kertas soalan ini. Soalan-soalan dalam Bahagian A mempunyai empat pilihan jawapan. Jawab setiap soalan dengan menghitamkan ruang yang betul di halaman 18. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 25 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A, 25 minit untuk Bahagian B, 50 minit untuk Bahagian C dan 35 minit untuk Bahagian D.

Instructions 1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Write your I.C. number and index number in the space provided. This question paper consists of four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D. Answer all sections in this question paper. Questions in Section A have four options. Answer each question by blackening the correct space on page 18. You are advised to spend about 25 minutes on Section A, 25 minutes on Section B, 50 minutes on Section C and 35 minutes on Section D.

________________________________________________________________________ Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 18 halaman bercetak

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SULIT 1119/2

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Section A [15 marks]

Buy Data Supersaver Light Bulbs Saves 50% on energy

Other features:

Gives as much light as an ordinary bulb

Comes in several colours Comes in many shapes

1 What is the most important feature of this product?

A Its shapes

B Its colour

C Its efficiency

D Its energy saving aspect

2 To apply for the vacancy as a nurse, one must

A be 24 years old.

B work the whole day.

C pass English and Science.

D have a pleasant personality.

VACANCIES FOR NURSES

REQUIREMENTS: Malaysian citizenship Possess distinctions in English and Science Not more than 23 years of age Willing to work shift Patient, polite and soft spoken

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3 When Mr. Wavering said “I lost her” he meant that his wife

A had died.

B had remarried.

C had lost her way.

D had played hide-and-seek.

Encik Jamal’s Monthly Budget Food (Groceries) RM 350.00

Entertainment RM 120.00

Loan Repayment RM 850.00

Health RM 250.00

Children’s Expenses RM 300.00

Transport (Fuel for two cars) RM 180.00

Savings RM 200.00

4 From the table above, Encik Jamal spends

A the least on food.

B the most on loan repayment.

C more on transport than savings.

D more on entertainment than health

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5 The Sunrise Restaurant is open for business

A daily.

B on Tuesdays.

C from morning till night.

D during lunch and dinner time.

6 The poster above tells us that we can

A wash our cars at Hospis Malaysia.

B participate in the Car Wash Day for free.

C help Hospis Malaysia by participating in the Car Wash Day.

D have a splashing charity drive by washing our own cars every day.

SUNRISE RESTAURANT

Business Hours

12.00 p.m. – 3.00 p.m. 7.00 p.m. – 10.00 p.m.

Open daily except Tuesdays

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AEON Melaka Safe

All of us just cannot wait to go shopping at AEON Jusco. The Melaka Chief Minister said that members of the public need not worry about their safety when they visit the shopping complex once it opens its doors. The newest Jusco outlet in the country was supposed to open on 15 December last year but its grand opening had to be postponed due to an explosion that killed two workers. Well, we must have faith in our Chief Minister. Read the full news on page 14.

7 According to the news report, AEON Melaka

A was closed for a year.

B will soon be open to the public.

C must wait another year before it opens its doors.

D had an explosion that killed members of the public.

8 The word “ faith” in the text above can best be replaced with

A trust.

B respect.

C pride.

D dignity.

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Questions 9 – 15 are based on the following passage.

How does a camel survive in the desert? Many people think that the camel stores

water in its hump, but the hump is really made 9_ of fats. A firm and tall hump

indicates good __10 while a soft and flabby one is a sign of weakness.

When a camel cannot find water, it passes less urine to conserve 11 small

amount of water it has in its body. Furthermore, the camel has a higher body temperature

than that of most mammals. This means that it starts to 12 at a higher temperature

than human beings. __13 __, in man, the loss of water thickens the blood. This is __14

man needs water more frequently.

These _ 15_ the reasons why a camel can go without water for up to thirty-four

days at a time. Because of this, the camel is the chief means of travel in the desert.

9 A in 13 A Similarly

B up B Moreover

C at C However

D on D Otherwise

10 A health 14 A who

B situation B why

C manner C what

D structure D where

11 A a 15 A is

B an B are

C the C was

D were

12 A sweating

B sweated

C sweats

D sweat

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Section B [10 marks]

Questions 16 – 25 Read the information on the different tourist attractions and answer the questions that follow.

Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant

Bukit Jalil Golf and Country Resort

This restaurant is a halal Chinese Muslim seafood eatery in Wangsa Maju. There are at least 140 types of seafood dishes ranging from Sweet Sour Salmon to Seafood Dimsum but their specialty is Butter-fried Lobsters with Jumbo Shrimps, served with Oriental dip.

Designed by Australian Max Wexler, the course boasts well-kept greens and challenging fairways. Besides golf, one can enjoy tennis, squash, badminton and bowling. A swimming pool and gym cater to the tourists who are health conscious.

Pulau Perhentian

Sam Poh Tong Temple

A diving attraction that is popular among Malaysians and international travellers alike, this beautiful island is surrounded by clear waters rich in marine life.

This is the biggest temple in the country. Impressive works of art are built into natural stalactites and stalagmites. A popular place for cave exploration.

Kuala Gula Sanctuary

Gunung Gading National Park

A must for nature-lovers and bird-watching enthusiasts. Learn more about the different types of birds and their behaviour. Enjoy the beautiful flora and fauna here.

The park is open to avid mountain climbers. The main attraction here is the Rafflesia, the biggest flower in the world. This is one of the best places in Borneo to see this rare and stinky flower.

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Questions 16 – 21 Using the information on the different tourist attractions, suggest the most suitable place for the tourists to choose from. Write the names of the places in the boxes. 16 Annie and her husband love to observe

birds and their habits.

17 Takashi wants to photograph the world’s largest bloom.

18 En. Ahmad and his family want to taste authentic Chinese food.

19 Mr. Johnson, who cares about his health, loves to play golf.

20 Mr. Lim is a marine biologist who wants to study more about fish.

21 Mr. Raman and his friends would like to explore caves.

Questions 22 – 25 Using the information on the different tourist attractions, complete the sentences with suitable answers. 22 Diving is the main attraction in Pulau Perhentian as it is…………………………

...….……………………………………...…….…………………………. [1 mark]

23 The most popular dish at Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant is ……………………….

……………..…………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]

24 Tourists going to Gunung Gading National Park must see ………………………

…………………………………………………………………………….[1 mark]

25 A golf enthusiast will go to Bukit Jalil and Country Resort because it has

……………………………………………………………….……………………

…………………………………………………………………………..... [1 mark]

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Section C [25 marks]

Questions 26 – 31 are based on the following passage. The passage below describes how the writer and her sister escaped a shooting that broke out in her town. Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. 1 “Hurry up children, your ong ngoai must be hungry by now,” Mother called

out from the front room of our family home in Tay Ninh, Vietnam. She had carefully placed steamed rice, fried chicken and vegetables in each compartment of the lunch rack, all set to be delivered to ong ngoai, our grandfather. My father, a staff sergeant with the Philippine Air Force, worked as a surgical technician for eight years and had married Mother, a local girl. Because of his work, he was away from home for weeks at a time. Mother was a housewife who took great care of Trang and me. She gave us the daily noontime job of taking lunch to our grandfather, who lived alone in a small rented apartment.

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2 “Here, send the food to ong ngoai quickly. Be careful not to spill the food,” she added.

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3 I was six years old. Trang, my sister, who was eight years older, was helping me get dressed. I was excited at the thought of getting out of the house.

4 Mother, ever-concerned, recited her list of reminders as she always did every day: “Stay on the side of the road. Look both ways before crossing the street. Don’t stop to talk to strangers. Come back straight to the house after you have delivered the food. Do not stop anywhere along the way. Run along now.”

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5 So hand in hand, with Trang carrying the lunch rack, we scurried one block down the road to our grandfather’s place. He was a retired judge and I was happy to see him every day. It was he who gave me my first cac (the equivalent of cents at that time).

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6 It was 1974 and war was spreading all over Vietnam, but in Tay Ninh life was peaceful and continued as usual. However, on that particular day, as Trang and I made our way to grandfather’s place, whizz!

7 “Duck down!” Trang cried as we walked along. “Stay low and take cover!” 258 Ratatatatat! Somewhere in the mountains just outside town, Vietcong

soldiers fired their flying bullets down our path. I bent so low that I actually dragged my face along the ground as I ran.

9 As we squatted at the side of the road, covering our heads, I started to worry about ong ngoai. He liked his food served hot. If we did not get there on time and his lunch turned cold - oh, I did not like the thought of it! I refused to let this outbreak of shooting slow us down. “Let’s just run for it!” I said.

30

10 Trang suggested duckwalking down the road but it was not a good idea. After a few paces, my short little legs began cramping. We tried all the manoeuvres that could save our lives but nothing seemed to work. We were ready to sit things out until the shooting was over. Then I suddenly remembered. If we ever came under fire, our elders had told us time after time, we should run from side to side. “Bullets travel in a straight line,” they said. “Run in a zigzag.”

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(Adapted from Reader’s Digest, May 2006)

11 So taking a deep breath, we set off again, running wildly back and forth across the road. After what seemed forever, the shooting ceased. “God Almighty be praised, the food is still warm,” was all I could say after we arrived at our grandfather’s apartment, completely unaware of the danger from which we had just escaped. Five cents awaited each of us!

40

12 As an adult, I sometimes look back on that eventful day. I now know what my young mind could not understand then: it is impossible to go through life without hardship and struggles being thrown at you. They come when you least think they would, like when you are happily walking down a street and bullets start flying at you. You can try to avoid them all you want, but as long as you are alive, they will keep coming, from all directions. Sure, you might get wounded, but you just have to bandage your wounds, pick yourself up and start walking again.

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26 (a) From paragraph 1, what did the writer and her sister have to do every day at noon?

……………………………………….………………………………….......[1 mark]

(b) From paragraph 3, what made the writer feel happy and enthusiastic?

…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]

27 From paragraph 5,

(a) which word has the same meaning as the word ‘hurried’?

…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]

(b) how did the writer feel when she met her grandfather each day?

…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]

28 From paragraph 6,

(a)

how was life in Tay Ninh different from the rest of Vietnam?

.…………………………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]

(b) what do you think had made the ‘whizz’ sound?

.……………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]

29 (a) From paragraph 11, what did the grandfather give the writer as a reward?

……………………………………………………………………….…...... [1 mark]

(b) From paragraph 12, what does the word ‘they’ in line 46 refer to?

…………………………………………………………………………....... [1 mark]

30 Do you agree with the writer that when we are facing problems, we need to pick ourselves up and walk again? Give a reason for your answer.

............................................................................................................................................... .............................................................................................................................. [2 marks]

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31 Based on the passage given, write a summary on:

the advice the writer’s mother gave her and her sister and what the writer and her sister did during the shooting

Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change the original meaning. Your summary must

be in continuous writing (not in note form) use materials from lines 10 to 40 not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below

Begin your summary as follows: The writer’s mother reminded her and her sister not to…

[15 marks]

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ANSWER SHEET FOR QUESTION 31 ………………………………………………………………………………..……

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Section D [25 marks]

32 Read the following poem Sonnet 18 and answer the questions that follow.

Shall I compare thee to a summer’s day? Thou art more lovely and more temperate. Rough winds do shake the darling buds of May, And summer’s lease hath all too short a date: Sometime too hot the eye of heaven shines, And often is his gold complexion dimm’d; And every fair from fair sometimes declines, By chance, or nature’s changing course, untrimm’d; But thy eternal summer shall not fade Nor lose possession of that fair thou grow’st. Nor shall Death brag thou wand’rest in his shade, When in eternal lines to time thou grow’st.

So long as men can breathe, or eyes can see, So long lives this, and this gives life to thee.

William Shakespeare

(a) What winds blow in May?

……………………………………………………….…………….... [1 mark]

(b) What does the line “And every fair from fair sometimes declines” in line 7 means?

……………………………………….……………………………… [1 mark]

(c) What does the phrase “eternal summer’ in line 9 refer to?

………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]

(d) Do you think beauty is important when choosing your life partner? Give a reason to support your answer.

…………………………………………………………………………………

………..…………………………………………………………………………

….…………………………………………………………………… [2 marks]

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33 Read the extract from the story The Drover’s Wife below and answer the questions that follow.

She brings the children in and makes them get on this table. They are two boys and two girls – mere babies. She gives them supper and then, before it gets dark, she goes into the house and snatches up some pillows and bedclothes – expecting to see or lay her hand on the snake at any minute. The woman finally decides to make the children sleep on the table in the kitchen.

(a) Name two things that the drover’s wife took from the house.

(i) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark] (ii) ……………………………………………………………….. [1 mark]

(b) Give a word to describe the drover’s wife.

…. ……………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]

(c) If you were one of the children, what two things would you do to help your

mother in this situation?

(i) ……………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]

(ii) ……………………………………………………………………. [1mark]

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34 The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English Language.

Jungle of Hope - Keris Mas

The Pearl - John Steinback

The Return - K.S. Maniam

Choose any one of the novels above and answer the question below.

Choose a character from a novel you have studied, and describe a dream that he or she had. Describe three things that he or she did to achieve that dream. Support your answer with close reference to the text.

[15 marks]

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ANSWER SHEET FOR QUESTION 34

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KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT

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SULIT 1119/2

18

FOR SECTION A

Blacken only one space for each question. If you wish to change your answer, erase the blackened mark that you have made. Then blacken the space for the new answer.

EXAMPLE:

▬A▬ =B= =C= =D= 1 =A= =B= =C= =D= 9 =A= =B= =C= =D=

2 =A= =B= =C= =D= 10 =A= =B= =C= =D=

3 =A= =B= =C= =D= 11 =A= =B= =C=

4 =A= =B= =C= =D= 12 =A= =B= =C= =D=

5 =A= =B= =C= =D= 13 =A= =B= =C= =D=

6 =A= =B= =C= =D= 14 =A= =B= =C= =D=

7 =A= =B= =C= =D= 15 =A= =B= =C= =D=

8 =A= =B= =C= =D=

For examiner’s use

Section Marks

A 15

B 10

C 25

D 25

Total 75

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1119/1 B.Inggeris Paper 2 September

PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA

SEKOLAH MENENGAH MALAYSIA (PKPSM) CAWANGAN MELAKA DENGAN KERJASAMA

JABATAN PELAJARAN MELAKA __________________________________________________

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN

SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2010

BAHASA INGGERIS Kertas 1

PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN

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Section A: Directed Writing (35 marks)

Format - 3 marks Content Point - 12 marks Language - 20 marks

Total - 35 marks : A CONTENT (15 marks) .

Format: 3 marks Award 1 mark each:

F1 Sender’s address and date F2 Salutation and opening F3 Closing and signature

Content Points: 12 marks Award one mark each for each content used appropriately. Do not award marks for mere mention of key words.

C1 Peer influence

C2 Lack of attention from parents

C3 Disinterest in learning

C4 Stress

C5 Monitoring by teachers

C6 Have interesting school activities

C7 Organize awareness campaigns

C8 Hold motivational talks

C9 Give warnings

C10 Send for counselling courses

C11 Strict punishment

C12 Dialogues with parents

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B LANGUAGE (20 marks)

Band & Mark Range

Description of Criteria

A 19 - 20

Language - accurate with only occasional first draft slips Sentence structures - varied Vocabulary - wide and precise Punctuation - accurate Spelling - accurate Paragraphs - have unity and are well-linked Style - relevant to an article Tone – appropriate

B 16 - 18

Language - almost always accurate with more first draft slips Errors - found in more complex structures Sentences - some variation in length and type (with some

complex structures) Vocabulary - wide enough Punctuation - almost always accurate Spelling - almost always accurate Paragraphs - linked and show some unity Style - relevant and informative Tone – appropriate

C 13 - 15

Language - largely accurate Simple structures - used without errors. Mistakes occur in more

complex structures Sentences - some variety of length and type but some repetitive

structures give a monotonous effect Vocabulary - adequate Punctuation - generally accurate Paragraphs – have some unity but links may be absent or

inappropriate Style - quite relevant and informative Tone - still appropriate

D 10 – 12

Language - sufficiently accurate Sentence structures - Patches of clarity seen in simple structures Mistakes in more complex structures Vocabulary - adequate but lacks precision Punctuation - generally correct Spelling mistakes - may be found in unfamiliar words Paragraphs - show some unity Style - relevant and informative but may not be sustained Tone - may not always be appropriate for an article

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E 7 - 9

Meaning - never in doubt Single word errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper

reading and precision Sentence structures - mainly simple but accuracy is not sustained Vocabulary - limited Punctuation - sometimes not correct Spelling mistakes - found in more difficult words Paragraphs - do not show unity and links are incorrectly used Style and tone - may not be relevant or informative

U (i) 4 – 6

Meaning - fairly clear Single word errors - numerous and impede reading A few simple structures - used accurately Vocabulary - very limited Punctuation - sometimes used correctly Spelling errors - more frequent Style and tone - may not be appropriate for an article

U (ii) 2 - 3

Sense - decipherable Content - generally comprehensible Some errors - multiple in nature Maybe only one or two accurate sentences Style and tone - hidden by too many errors

U (iii) 0 - 1

Errors - mostly multiple in nature (meaning is not clear) Structures - distorted and ambiguous Whole sections may make no sense at all Award ‘1’ mark if some sense can be obtained Award ‘0’ mark if the article makes no sense at all from

beginning to end

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Section B: Continuous Writing (50 marks) 1 The assessment of the candidate’s response will be based on impression. 2 The examiner shall read and re-read the response carefully and at the same time underline

for gross or minor errors or put in omission marks (^) where such errors occur. 3 The examiner should also mark for good vocabulary or expressions by putting a merit

tick (√) at the end of such merits. 4 The examiner shall fit the candidate’s response against the most appropriate band having

most of the criteria as found in the band. The examiner may have to refer to upper or lower bands to the band already chosen to BEST FIT the student’s response to the most appropriate band. The marks from the band decided on for the script also depend on the number of criteria that are found in the script.

5 Justify the band and marks given, if necessary, by commenting on the strengths and

weaknesses of the candidate’s response, using the criteria found in the band.

Band & Mark range

Description of Criteria

A 44 – 50

Language - entirely accurate, with occasional first draft slips Sentence structures - varied Vocabulary - wide and precise Punctuation - accurate and helpful Spelling - entirely accurate Paragraphs - well-planned, unified and linked Topic - consistently relevant Interest - aroused and sustained throughout writing

B 38 – 43

Language - accurate, with occasional minor errors Sentences of some varied lengths and types, some complex sentences Vocabulary - wide enough to show shades of intended meaning with some

precision Punctuation - almost always accurate Spelling - nearly always accurate Paragraphs with some evidence of planning, unity and appropriately linked Interest - mostly aroused and sustained

C 32 – 37

Language - largely accurate Simple structures – free of errors; errors with more ambitious structures Vocabulary - wide enough to convey meaning but lack precision Punctuation in simple sentences - accurate, with errors in more complex

sentences Simple words - spelt correctly but misspelt when used with more

sophisticated words Paragraphs - used with some unity or at times not unified or

inappropriately linked Writing - relevant but lacks originality and planning Some interest aroused but not sustained

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D 26 – 31

Language - sufficiently accurate, communicates clearly Simple structures and vocabulary, with patches of clear, accurate language Some variety of sentence types and length but purpose is not clearly seen Vocabulary - usually adequate to show intended meaning but not

developed to precision Paragraphs - show some unity Punctuation - generally correct but does not clarify meaning Spelling of simple words - correct but more errors occur Writing of some relevance but lacking in liveliness and interest value

E 20 - 25

Meaning - never in doubt Errors - sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper reading Simple structures - some accurate but unlikely to sustain accuracy for long Vocabulary - limited, too simple or more ambitious but imperfectly

understood Simple words - spelt correctly but with frequent mistakes in spelling and

punctuation Paragraphs - lack unity or haphazardly arranged Some relevance, but partially treated High incidence of linguistic errors distract from merits of content in

composition

U (i) 14 – 19

Meaning - fairly clear High incidence of errors impede reading Vocabulary - many serious errors of various kinds, mainly single-word

type, but could be corrected without rewriting Sentences - very few accurate ones Sentences - simple but often repetitive Errors - frequently causing blurring Punctuation - used correctly, also with sentence separation errors Paragraphs - lack unity or no paragraphs at all

U (ii) 8 – 13

Some sense, with multiple word errors Requires re-reading before being understood Only a few accurate simple sentences Content - comprehensible Incidence of linguistic error - high Meaning - blurred Far short of required length

U (iii) 0 – 7

Almost entirely impossible to read Whole sections make little or no sense at all Occasional patches of clarity (marks awarded) Vocabulary - simple words used Frequent errors cause blurring “0” for scripts with no sense from beginning till the end

PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN TAMAT

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1119/2 B.Inggeris Paper 2 September

PERSIDANGAN KEBANGSAAN PENGETUA-PENGETUA

SEKOLAH MENENGAH MALAYSIA (PKPSM) CAWANGAN MELAKA DENGAN KERJASAMA

JABATAN PELAJARAN MELAKA __________________________________________________

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN

SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2010

BAHASA INGGERIS Kertas 2

PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN

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Section A 1 D 2 D 3 A 4 B 5 D 6 C 7 B 8 A 9 B 10 A 11 C 12 D 13 C 14 B 15 B Section B 16 Kuala Gula Sanctuary 17 Gunung Gading National Park 18 Cheng Ho Seafood Restaurant 19 Bukit Jalil Golf and Country Resort 20 Pulau Perhentian 21 Sam Poh Tong Temple 22 surrounded by clear waters rich in marine life 23 Butter-fried Lobsters with Jumbo Shrimps, served with Oriental dip. 24 Rafflesia (the biggest flower in the world) 25 well-kept greens and challenging fairways Section C 26 (a) take lunch to their grandfather (who lived alone in a rented apartment). (b) The thought of getting out of the house 27 (a) scurried

(b) (She was) happy to see him. 28 (a) Life was peaceful (and continued as usual). (b) (The Vietcong soldiers’) bullets 29 (a) Five cents (b) Hardship and struggles 30 Accept any reasonable answer.

Award either 0 mark or 2 marks. If answer is only ‘Yes’ or ‘No’, award 0 mark.

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31 Summary

Content - 10 marks (award up to a maximum of 10 marks) Style & Presentation - 5 marks Total - 15 marks

Content Each point is awarded 1 mark. 1 spill the food 2 stay on the side of the road 3 look both ways before crossing the street. 4 do not stop to talk to strangers. 5 come back straight to the house after they have delivered the food. 6 do not stop anywhere along the way. 7 ducked down / stayed low and took cover 8 bent so low (that she actually dragged her face along the ground) as she ran 9 squatted at the side of the road 10 covered their heads 11 duckwalked down the road 12 tried all the manoeuvres that could save their lives 13 ran from side to side / ran in a zigzag / ran wildly back and forth across the road

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Style & Presentation Mark Paraphrase Mark Use of English

5 - Sustained attempt to rephrase text - Expression is secure

5 - Language is accurate - Occasional errors - Sentence structure is varied - Marked ability to use original complex syntax - Punctuation is accurate - Spelling is secure

4 - Noticeable attempt to rephrase text - Free from stretches of concentrated lifting

4 - Language is almost always accurate - Serious errors are isolated - Some original syntax and sentence variety - Punctuation is generally accurate - Spelling is nearly always secure

3 - Intelligent & selective lifting - Limited attempt to rephrase text - Expression may not always be secure

3 - Language is largely accurate - Simple structures dominate - Serious erros are not frequent but noticeable - Sentences are generally lifted from the text - Punctuation is largely accurate - Spelling is mostly secure

2 - Wholesale copying of text material - Originality is barely noticeable

2 - Serious errors are frequent - Accuracy is not sustained for long - Simple punctuation is correct - Irrelevant/distorted detail will destroy the sequence in places

1 - Complete transcript of the text - Originality is barely noticeable - Mindless copying of the text - Irrelevant sections of the text are included

1 - Heavy frequency of serious errors - Fractured syntax

Award 0 when candidates copy totally from outside the prescribed text.

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Section D 32 a) Rough / strong (winds) b) Beauty will fade over time c) the woman’s beauty

d) Accept any suitable answer. *Award either 0 mark or 2 marks. If answer is only ‘Yes’ or ‘No’, award 0 mark. Accept response if yes/no answer is implied.

33 a) (i) pillows

(ii) bedclothes interchangeable

b) responsible / caring / loving / concerned / protective / Accept any suitable answer

c) Accept any suitable answers.

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34 AWARDING CONTENT MARKS : Please refer to the band descriptors below before deciding which band BEST FITS the mark for CONTENT.

SCORE BAND DESCRIPTORS

9 – 10

The response contains a majority of the following : Response – relevant to specified task Dream and what character did – well supported and linked with

evidence/knowledge from text Main and supporting ideas – relevant to specified task Ideas – clearly presented, well-organised and easily understood

7 – 8

The response contains a majority of the following : Response – relevant to the task Dream and what character did – usually supported and linked with

knowledge/evidence from text Mains and supporting ideas – mostly relevant to specified task Ideas – clear and can be understood

5 – 6

The response contains a majority of the following : Response – intermittently relevant to specified task Dream and what character did – supported and linked with some

knowledge or evidence to specified task Ideas – some are relevant to the specified task Ideas – generally clear, can be understood but lack organisation

3 – 4

The response contains a majority of the following : Response – barely relevant to specified task Dream and what character did – unlikely identified or even when

identified, not likely to be linked to the text Ideas – hardly relevant to specified task Ideas – difficult to understand

1 – 2

No understanding of task requirement Disorganised writing – incoherent; ideas – irrelevant to the specified

task

0

Response in language other than English No response Response – not related to the novel

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AWARDING LANGUAGE MARKS : Please refer to the band descriptors below before deciding which band BEST FITS the mark for LANGUAGE.

MARK USE OF LANGUAGE

5

Language – accurate, with very occasional slips Occasional minor errors, first draft slips Sentence structure – varied Punctuation – accurate and helpful Spelling – secure throughout response

4

Language – almost always accurate Sentences – some variation Punctuation – accurate and generally helpful Spelling – nearly always secure

3

Language – largely accurate Simple structures dominate Serious errors – not frequent although noticeable Serious errors with sophisticated structures Punctuation – largely accurate Spelling – mostly secure

2

Meaning – not in doubt Serious errors – becoming more frequent Simple structures – accurate but not sustained Simple punctuation, usually correct, with occasional separation

errors Spelling – largely accurate but mistakes with more difficult words

0 – 1

Serious errors – heavy frequency, impeding reading Fractured syntax – more pronounced, with punctuation faltering Sentence separation errors – frequent

PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN TAMAT

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