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SULIT

1119/1 © 2008 Jawatankuasa Kurikulum Zon A, Kuching SULIT

JAWATANKUASA KURIKULUM ZON A, KUCHING

SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2008 1119/1 PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN ZON A BAHASA INGGERIS Kertas 1 Sept. 1 ¾ jam Satu jam empat puluh lima minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan

1. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi dua bahagian: Bahagian A dan Bahagian B. 2. Jawab kedua-dua bahagian. 3. Jawapan anda hendaklah ditulis dalam buku jawapan yang disediakan. Sekiranya

ruang jawapan tidak mencukupi, sila dapatkan helaian tambahan daripada pengawas peperiksaan.

4. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 45 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian

A dan satu jam untuk Bahagian B. Instructions

1. This question paper consists of two sections: Section A and Section B. 2. Answer both sections. 3. Your answers must be written in the answer booklet provided. If the spaces in the

booklet are insufficient, please get the additional answer sheets from the invigilator. 4. You are advised to spend 45 minutes on Section A and one hour on Section B.

Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 3 halaman bercetak.

[Lihat sebelah

Sarawak Zon A Trial SPM 2008 http://edu.joshuatly.com/ http://www.joshuatly.com/

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1119/1 © 2008 Hak Cipta JK Kurikulum Zon A, Kuching SULIT

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Section A : Directed Writing

[35 marks]

[Time suggested : 45 minutes]

You are concerned about the feelings of patriotism among school children. You have

decided to write an article for your school newsletter to instil patriotism among the students

in your school.

Write the article and include the following points:

Be patriotic – show love and respect

Be law-abiding citizens – respect the laws

Be hardworking – take part in the country’s progress

Be tolerant – Malaysia, a multiracial country

Be proud of Malaysia – promote Malaysia

Be willing to protect and sacrifice for the country

Support local products

When writing your article, do remember:

to provide a title

that your readers are mainly students

to use all the points given

to elaborate on each of the points above with relevant details


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Section B: Continuous Writing

[50 marks]

[Time suggested : One hour]

Write a composition of about 350 words on one of the following topics.

1 Describe one of the celebrations in your country.

2 Write a story ending with:

“I realized my mistake. I promised my parents that I would be a better person.”

3 Parents should be blamed for their children’s misconduct. Do you agree?

4 Things that I like about myself

5 Dreams

KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT


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1119/2 © 2008 Jawatankuasa Kurikulum Zon A, Kuching SULIT

NAMA

KELAS

JAWATANKUASA KURIKULUM ZON A, KUCHING

SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2008 1119/2 PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN ZON A BAHASA INGGERIS Kertas 2 Sept.

2 ¼ jam Dua jam lima belas minit

JANGAN BUKA KERTAS SOALAN INI SEHINGGA DIBERITAHU

Arahan

1. Tulis nama dan kelas anda pada ruang yang disediakan.

2. Kertas soalan ini mengandungi empat bahagian: Bahagian A, Bahagian B, Bahagian C dan Bahagian D.

3. Jawab semua bahagian dalam kertas soalan ini.

4. Soalan-soalan dalam Bahagian A mempunyai empat pilihan jawapan. Jawab setiap soalan dengan menghitamkan ruang yang betul di halaman 19.

5. Anda dinasihati supaya mengambil masa 25 minit untuk menjawab soalan Bahagian A, 25 minit untuk Bahagian B, 50 minit untuk Bahagian C dan 35 minit untuk Bahagian D.

Instructions

1. Write your name and class in the space provided. 2. This question paper consists of four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and

Section D.

3. Answer all sections in this question paper.

4. Questions in Section A have four options. Answer each question by blackening the correct space on page 19.

5. You are advised to spend 25 minutes on Section A, 25 minutes on Section B, 50 minutes on Section C and 35 minutes on Section D.

Kertas soalan ini mengandungi 19 halaman bercetak.

[Lihat sebelah


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Section A [15 marks]

1 The notice above tells us that

A all children are welcome.

B children under 12 must be supervised.

C children under 12 cannot use the facility.

D children are not permitted to enter the gym.

2 The advertisement above is for those who are

A interested to advertise in Rate Card.

B willing to advertise in Rate Card.

C advertising in Rate Card.

D subscribe to Rate Card.

Rate Card - Advertise on Health & Fitness Tips

The Benefits of Advertising with Health & Fitness Tips

Through our website and weekly newsletters you'll be targeting large numbers of consumers who are looking for various ways to improve their health and fitness.

The purpose of the Health & Fitness Tips website and newsletter is to give consumers proven methods to help them in their quest for good health. It is our goal to inform our visitors and subscribers of new developments in the health and fitness fields. Our team is made up of Health Professionals, Medical Doctors and Health and Fitness Writers & Editors.

For further information on how to advertise with us, please contact us at 865-671-8436, or e-mail us at [email protected].

Children under 12 are not permitted to use gym equipment


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3

Study the statistics and choose the most accurate statement about men and

women drivers.

Fact Men Women

Involved in crashes ( in millions )

Crashes per kilometre travelled

Kilometres travelled per annum

Cause of traffic deaths

Fined for speeding

12.9

87

30,000

68%

87%

8.2

101

9500

32%

13%

4 A Women get involved in more accidents than men.

B Men get involved in more accidents than women.

C Men love to speed and kill more women drivers.

D Generally men are better drivers than women.

State-of -the- art surveillance cameras

installed at KLIA for increased safety

According to the newspaper headline above, we know that A travellers at KLIA are well protected by cameras.

B sophisticated security equipment has been placed at KLIA.

C security systems in KLIA match the interior design of the airport.

D more cameras have been placed at KLIA for the safety of the

travellers.


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5 Based on the picture above, the phrase work on your smash suggests that the

girl

A is ready to compete.

B needs more practice.

C is ready to smash her opponents.

D has to be more focused on her game.

6 The picture above shows that

A this is a standard class phone.

B no phones are allowed in that carriage.

C first-time travellers can use their mobile phones.

D nobody is allowed to answer their phones in that carriage.

I want you to work on your

smash.

Standard Class Quiet Carriage

First Transforming Travel


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7 The survey above tells us that

A People in Indonesia are the happiest in the world.

B People in rich countries are the happiest in the world.

C Most people in the Philippines are happy with their lives.

D The Japanese are more miserable than the South Koreans.

(Adapted from the Internet, 2008) 8 From the comic strip above, the main character is A having a bad day.

B watching television.

C having a bad dream.

D missing his guardian angel.

DON’T WORRY, BE HAPPY

A Hong Kong research company conducted Asia’s

first happiness survey and found that nine out of

ten people in the Philippines and Indonesia were

happy with their lives. Malaysia, Singapore and

Thailand shared second place. In third place were

Hong Kong, South Korea, Taiwan and Japan.


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Questions 9 – 15 are based on the following passage.

Malaysians have been using herbal plants ___9___ hundreds of years and if

you have old relatives who live in kampungs, you can ___10___ them for home-

grown cures for many ailments. All ___11____ advertisements telling you how glossy

your hair can be, how smooth you can make your skin and how to maintain your

health are just clever ___12___ used by companies selling health products and

cosmetics to make you part with your money.

Aloe vera is a plant that ___13___ easily in Malaysia. The gel inside the

leaves has been used by our grandmothers as a shampoo to wash their hair. Yet

today, we have expensive shampoos _____14_____ that they contain aloe vera, as

if it _____15____ some ingredient which is rare and therefore expensive. You can

get aloe vera for free if you just plant some in your garden and you do not even have

to look after them.

(Adapted from Just English, December 2005)

9 A in 13 A grow

B for B grew

C over C grows

D about D growing

10 A ask 14 A claim

B asks B claims

C asked C claimed

D asking D claiming

11 A this 15 A is

B that B are

C these C was

D those D were

12 A plans

B designs

C strategies

D programmes


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Section B [10 marks]

Questions 16 – 25 Read the information below and then answer the questions that follow.

SPIRITED JULY

A number of hugely popular, large-scale events taking place this month make it one of the best times to visit Malaysia.

Ipoh International Run

Where Perak Stadium, Ipoh, Perak When 6 July 2008 What’s in store Organised by the Ipoh City Council with cooperation from the Perak state government, the Perak Tourism Action Council and the Perak Amateur Athletics Association, the Ipoh International Run draws a good following to compete in categories – 21 km, 10 km, 7 km and 5 km. This year‟s event will be flagged off by His Royal Highness the Regent of Perak Darul Ridzuan.

Rainforest World Music Festival 2008

Where Sarawak Cultural Village, Santubong, Kuching When 11 – 13 July 2008 What’s in store Held against the magnificent backdrop of Sarawak‟s Mount Santubong, the Rainforest World Music Festival is one of the state‟s most important music festivals that never fail to sell out since its introduction in 1997. Performers from the world over play to enthusiastic fans, whose numbers are expected to break last year‟s attendance of 24,000.

Port Dickson International Triathlon 2008

Where Admiral Marina & Leisure Club, Port Dickson, Negeri Sembilan When 12 – 13 July 2008 What’s in store This year marks the seventh anniversary of this seriously gruelling sporting event that draws some of the world‟s best triathletes from Thailand, Macau, Hong Kong, New Zealand, Australia, UK, South Africa and France to the western coastal town of Port Dickson in the state of Negeri Sembilan. The Olympic Distance circuit includes a 1.5 km swim, 40 km cycle and a 10 km run.

Adapted from Going Places, July 2008


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Questions 16 – 20 Using the information given, complete the table below.

Event Venue Date

Ipoh International Run

16

17

18 Admiral Marina & Leisure

Club 12 – 13 July 2008

19

20

11 – 13 July 2008

[5 marks] Questions 21 – 25 Based on the information given, give short answers to the following questions.

21 Who is the main organiser of the Ipoh International Run?

……………………………………………………………………………… [1 mark] 22 When was the first Rainforest World Music Festival held?

……………………………………………………………………………… [1 mark] 23 What does a participant of the Port Dickson International Triathlon 2008 have

to do in the competition?

……………………………………………………………………………… [1 mark] 24 Jacques is a jazz enthusiast from France. Which event would he be most

interested in?

……………………………………………………………………………… [1 mark] 25 Alina is an amateur marathon runner from Seremban. Which event would she

be most interested in?

……………………………………………………………………………… [1 mark]

[5 marks]


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Section C [25 marks]

Questions 26 – 31 are based on the following passage.

1

2

3

4

5

6

7

8

Jayasiri Bandara wanted to make the most of his medical leave from the Sri Lankan army last September. He took his wife Srimathi and three-year-old daughter to the Maragaha Tank near Anuradhapura, a 2200-year-old city in Sri Lanka‟s north central province. There, they left their daughter on the bicycle seat to go for a quick dip. Srimathi waded waist deep into the cool water while Bandara immersed himself fully. But after only a few dips, he heard a scream. Jumping up, he saw that his daughter was fine but there was no sign of his wife. He shouted her name but there was no response. Then Bandara spotted churning water and bubbles nearly three metres away. Splashing his way towards the disturbance, a sharp object struck his leg and his worst fear was confirmed: a crocodile had taken his wife. Bandara dove into the two-metre-deep pond, searching blindly until he found its slimy tail. He grabbed hold but the three-metre-long creature shook him off. He tried again, catching the crocodile around its body. Bandara became desperate when the crocodile would not let go of his wife. He then remembered a local belief that tickling the crocodile‟s belly will make it open its mouth. He tried it and amazingly, the beast wriggled and opened its mouth, freeing his wife. Bandara grabbed Srimathi from the crocodile‟s jaws and threw the 60-kilogramme crocodile as far as he could. When she reached out to drag him to shore, Srimathi realised that half her right arm was missing. The beast attacked again, this time grabbing her dress. Bandara tore the cloth off his wife‟s body, allowing the crocodile to take it, and in a final burst of strength reached the shore. Examining what was left of her bleeding arm, Bandara knew he had to get her to a hospital. He screamed at some people nearby to help. A three-wheeler soon arrived and drove her to the Nochchiyagama hospital. The doctor dressed the wound and urged Bandara to rush her to a better equipped facility in Anuradhapura. Srimathi was suffering from shock and excessive loss of blood, but quick medical action saved her life. For his brave deed, Jayasiri Bandara was awarded the Gold Medal for Civilian Bravery by Sri Lanka‟s Foundation for Civilian Bravery at a ceremony in Colombo on June 14, 2007.

(Reader‟s Digest, September 2007)

5

10

15

20

25

30


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26 From paragraph 1, where did Jayasiri Bandara take his family for a holiday?

……….…………………………………………………………………………. [1 mark]

27 From paragraph 2,

(a) when did Bandara realise that something had gone wrong?

……………………………………………………………………...…….. [1 mark]

(b) which phrase shows that Srimathi had gone missing?

………………………………………………...………………………….. [1 mark]

28 From paragraph 3,

(a) how did Bandara know where to find his wife?

………………………………………………………………………...….. [1 mark]

(b) what did Bandara do in his first attempt to rescue his wife from the

crocodile?

…………………………………………………………………………………….…

…………………………………………………………………………… [2 marks]

29 (a) From paragraph 4, what made the crocodile release Srimathi?

…….…………………………………………………………………..……. [1 mark]

(b) From paragraph 5, what injury did Srimathi sustain in the attack?

………………………………………………………………………...……. [1 mark]

30 In your opinion, did the Foundation for Civilian Bravery do the right thing in giving

Bandara the Gold Medal for Civilian Bravery? Give a reason.

…………………………………………………………………………………….………

……………………………………………………………………………...…. [2 marks]


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31 Based on the passage given, write a summary on:

what Bandara did to rescue his wife from the crocodile

what he did to save her life after that

Credit will be given for use of own words but care must be taken not to change

the original meaning.

Your summary must

be in continuous writing (not in note form)

use material from lines 10 to 31

not be longer than 130 words, including the 10 words given below

Begin your summary as follows:

Bandara shouted Srimathi‟s name but she did not answer. Then ….

[15 marks]

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ANSWER SHEET FOR QUESTION 31

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Section D [25 marks]

32 Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow.

If If you can keep your head when all about you

Are losing theirs and blaming it on you; If you can trust yourself when all men doubt you,

But make allowance for their doubting too; If you can wait and not to be tired by waiting,

Or being lied about don‟t deal in lies, Or being hated don‟t give way to hating,

And yet don‟t look too good, nor talk too wise;

If you can dream – and not make dreams your master; If you can think – and not make thoughts your aim;

If you can meet with Triumph and Disaster And treat those two impostors just the same;

If you can bear to hear the truth you‟ve spoken Twisted by knaves to make a trap for fools,

Or watch the things you gave your life to, broken, And stoop and build „em up with worn-out tools;

If you can make one heap of all your winnings

And risk it on one turn of pitch-and-toss, And lose, and start again at your beginnings And never breathe a word about your loss; To serve your turn long after they are gone, And so hold on when there is nothing in you

Except the Will which says to them: “Hold on!”

If you can talk with crowds and keep your virtue, Or walk with Kings – nor lose the common touch;

If neither foes nor loving friends can hurt you; If all men count with you, but none too much;

If you can fill the unforgiving minute With sixty seconds‟ worth of distance run,

Yours is the Earth and everything that‟s in it, And – which is more – you‟ll be a Man, my son!

Rudyard Kipling


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(a) Who is the persona in this poem?

…………………………………………………………………………………...[1 mark]

(b) What does the phrase „make allowance‟ in Stanza 1 refer to?

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………..[1 mark]

(c) Except the Will which says to them: “Hold on!”

In your own words, explain what the persona means by the line above.

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………..[1 mark]

(d) Based on the poem, state two qualities that you need to be a successful person.

…………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………..[2 marks]


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33 Read the extract from the short story The Sound Machine below and answer the

questions that follow.

The doctor heard the frantic, almost hysterical note in the man‟s voice, the

same note he was used to hearing in the voices of people who called up and

said, “There‟s been an accident. Come quickly.” He said slowly, “You really want

me to get out of bed and come over now?”

“Yes, now. At once, please.”

“All right, then – I‟ll come.”

Klausner sat down beside the telephone and waited. He tried to remember

what the shriek of the tree had sounded like, but he couldn‟t. He could remember

only that it had been enormous and frightful and that it had made him feel sick

with horror.

(a) Based on the extract above, what did the doctor think about Klausner‟s emotional

state? …………………………………………………………………………………...[1 mark]

(b) What did Klausner ask the doctor to do? …………………………………………………………………………………...[1 mark]

(c) How did the shriek of the tree make Klausner feel? …………………………………………………………………………………...[1 mark]

(d) If you were the doctor, would you have agreed to go and see Klausner? Give a reason for your answer.

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…………………………………………………………………………………...[2 marks]


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34 The following are the novels studied in the literature component in English Language.

Jungle of Hope - Keris Mas The Pearl - John Steinbeck The Return - K.S. Maniam Choose any one of the novels above and answer the question below. Choose a character that has undergone changes in the novel you have studied. Describe the changes. Support your answer with close reference to the text. [15 marks] ………………………………………………………………………………………………

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KERTAS SOALAN TAMAT


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FOR SECTION A

Blacken only one space for each question. If you wish to change your answer, erase the blackened mark that you have made. Then blacken the space for the new answer.

EXAMPLE:

A B C D

1 9

2 10

3 11

4 12

5 13

6 14

7 15

8

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C

A B C D

A B C

A B C D

A B C

A B C D

A B C D

A B C D

A B C

A B C D

D

D

D

D

For examiner’s use

Examiner’s code

Section Marks

A

15

B

10

C

25

D

25

TOTAL

75


JAWATANKUASA KURIKULUM SEKOLAH MENENGAH ZON A KUCHING

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN ZON A SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2008

PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN

BAHASA INGGERIS

Kertas 1

Kertas ini mengandungi 6 halaman bercetak

SULIT 1119/1 Bahasa Inggeris Kertas 1 September 2008 1 ¾ jam

1119/1 @ 2008 Hak Cipta Jawatankukasa Kurikulum Sekolah Menengah Zon A, Kuching. [Lihat sebelah

SULIT

1119/1


SULIT 1119/1(Mark Scheme)

1119/1(Mark Scheme) © Jawatankuasa Kurikulum Zon A, Kuching

2

2

SECTION A: Directed Writing

MARK SCHEME CONTENT - 15 marks LANGUAGE - 20 marks TOTAL - 35 marks Contents = 15 marks Language = 20 marks (a) CONTENT – 15 marks

Format: F – suitable title 1 mark

Content Points Award 1 mark for mere mention of each of the content points C1 – Be patriotic – show love and respect 1 mark C2 – Be law-abiding citizens – respect the laws 1 mark C3 – Be hardworking – take part in the country’s progress 1 mark C4 – Be tolerant – Malaysia, a multiracial country 1 mark C5 – Be proud of Malaysia – promote Malaysia 1 mark C6 – Be willing to protect and sacrifice for the country 1 mark C7 – Support local products 1 mark

Elaboration Award 1 mark for relevant elaboration on each of the content points E1 – Elaboration of C1 E2 – Elaboration of C2 E3 – Elaboration of C3 E4 – Elaboration of C4 E5 – Elaboration of C5 E6 – Elaboration of C6 E7 – Elaboration of C7

(b) LANGUAGE – 20 marks

Marks are awarded for: (i) Accurate English (ii) Style and Tone appropriate to the task

** Students need not use exact words given in the stimulus. However, own language must

convey the same meaning.




3

3

CRITERIA FOR MARKING LANGUAGE Section A: Directed Writing

This is not from Lembaga Peperiksaan

Mark Range

Description of Criteria

A 19 – 20

Language is accurate with occasional first draft slips

Sentence structures are varied

Sentence length and type – employed to achieve intended effect

Vocabulary is sophisticated and used with precision

Punctuation is accurate and helpful

Spelling is accurate throughout

Paragraphs are unified and appropriately linked

Style – formal, informative and concise, and tone – always appropriate

B 16 – 18

Language is almost always accurate with more minor or first draft errors

Errors from more ambitious structures which are imperfectly understood

Sentences – some variation of length and type

Complex structures – confidently used

Punctuation – almost always accurate and generally helpful

Vocabulary – wide enough, conveying intended shades of meaning with some precision

Spelling is nearly always accurate

Paragraphs show some unity and appropriate linkage

Style – informative and avoids digression

C

13 – 15

Language is largely accurate to communicate meaning clearly

Simple structures – used without error; mistakes in only more sophisticated structures

Vocabulary – adequate to convey meaning but not developed to precision

Sentences – some variety of length and structure

Tendency to repeat some sentence types creating monotony

Punctuation – generally accurate; errors in more complex use.

Paragraphs – some unity but absent or inappropriate linkage

Style – quite informative and formal

D 10 – 12

Language, sufficiently accurate

Simple structures, patches of clarity

Mistakes with more complex sentences

Vocabulary, adequate but lacks precision

Simple words, spelt correctly with errors from unfamiliar words

Punctuation, generally correct but not enhancing or clarifying meaning

Sentence separation errors

Set out in paragraphs with some unity

Style, attempts to achieve formality

E 7 – 9

Meaning, never in doubt

Single Word Errors (SWE), sufficiently frequent, seriously hampering precision and speed of reading

Vocabulary, limited – too simple or imperfectly understood

Simple words, spelt accurately but mistakes with more difficult ones

Set out in paragraphs but lacks unity, with links incorrectly used

Sentence separation errors

Punctuation errors

Style, fails to achieve formality




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4

Mark Range

Description of Criteria

U (i) 4 – 6

Meaning, usually fairly clear

Correction of SWE may produce fairly accurate English

High incidence of error impeding speed of reading

Accurate sentences, a few

Vocabulary, does not extend beyond a simple range – inadequate to express intended shades of meaning

Punctuation, sometimes used correctly but with sentence separation errors

Paragraphs, not used, or when used, show lack of planning

Frequent spelling errors

Style, not appropriate to indicate formality

Detailed requirements of task – understanding not shown

U (ii) 2 – 3

Sense, decipherable

Multiple errors (MWE), some

Requires re-reading and re-organising before meaning becomes clear

Whole sections may make little or No sense

Accurate sentence, unlikely to be one or two

Content, comprehensible

Style, hidden by density of errors

U (iii) 0 – 1

Scripts, almost entirely impossible to recognize as English

Whole sections do not make sense or rubrics copied

“0” mark awarded if writing makes no sense at all from beginning to end

Sarawak Zon A Trial SPM 2008

http://edu.joshuatly.com/ http://www.joshuatly.com/



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SECTION B: Continuous Writing MARK SCHEME 1. The candidate’s response will be assessed based on impression. 2. The examiner shall read and re-read the response carefully and at the same time

underline for gross or minor errors or put in insertion marks (^) where such errors occur. 3. The examiner should also mark for good vocabulary or expressions by putting a merit

tick at the end of such merits. 4. The examiner shall fit the candidate’s response against the most appropriate band

having most of the criteria as found in the band. The examiner may have to refer to upper or lower bands to the band already chosen to BEST FIT the student’s response to the most appropriate band. The marks from the band decided on for the script also depend on the number of criteria that are found in the script.

5. Justify the band and marks given, if necessary, by commenting on the strengths and weaknesses of the candidate’s response, using the criteria found in the band.

CATEGORY DESCRIPTIONS FOR THE ASSESSMENT OF CONTINUOUS WRITING

Section B THIS IS NOT from LEMBAGA PEPERIKSAAN

MARK RANGE

DESCRIPTION OF CRITERIA

A 44 – 50

Language, entirely accurate, with occasional first draft slips

Sentence structures, varied

Vocabulary, wide and precise

Punctuation, accurate and helpful

Spelling, entirely accurate

Paragraphs, well-planned, unified and linked

Topic, consistently relevant

Interest, aroused and sustained throughout writing

B 38 – 43

Language, accurate, with occasional minor errors or first draft slips

Sentences of some varied lengths and types, some complex sentences

Vocabulary, wide enough to show shades of intended meaning with some precision

Punctuation, almost always accurate

Spelling, nearly always accurate

Paragraphs with some evidence of planning, unified and appropriately linked

Writing, relevant, mostly arousing and sustaining interest

C 32 – 37

Language, largely accurate

Simple structures, error-free; errors with more ambitious structures

Vocabulary, wide enough to convey meaning but lack precision

Punctuation in simple sentences, accurate, with errors in more complex use

Simple words, spelt correctly but misspelt when used with more sophisticated words

Paragraphs, used with some unity or at times not unified or inappropriately linked

Writing, relevant but lack originality and planning

Some interest, aroused but not sustained




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MARK RANGE

DESCRIPTION OF CRITERIA

D 26 – 31

Language, sufficiently accurate, communicates clearly

Simple structures and vocabulary, with patches of clear, accurate language

Some variety of sentence type and length but purpose, not clearly seen

Vocabulary, usually adequate to show intended meaning but not developed to precision

Punctuation, generally correct but does not clarify meaning

Spelling of simple words, correct but more errors occur

Writing, some relevance but lacking in liveliness and interest value

E 20 - 25

Meaning, never in doubt

Errors, sufficiently frequent and serious to hamper reading

Simple structures, some accurate but unlikely to sustain accuracy long

Vocabulary, limited, too simple or more ambitious, imperfectly understood

Simple words, spelt correctly but with frequent mistakes in spelling and punctuation

Paragraphs, lack unity or haphazardly arranged

Some relevance, but partially treated

High incidence of linguistic errors, distract from merits of content in composition

U (i) 14 – 19

Meaning, fairly clear

High incidence of errors impede reading

Vocabulary, many serious errors of various kinds, mainly single-word type, but could be corrected without rewriting

Sentences, very few accurate ones

Sentences, simple but often repetitive

Errors, frequently causing blurring

Punctuation, used correctly, also with sentence separation errors

Paragraphs, lack unity or no paragraphs at all

U (ii) 8 – 13

Some sense, with multiple word errors

Requires re-reading before being understood

Only a few accurate simple sentences

Content, comprehensible

Incidence of linguistic error, high

Meaning, blur

Far short of required length

U (iii) 0 – 7

Almost entirely impossible to read

Whole sections make little or no sense at all

Occasional patches of clarity (marks awarded)

Vocabulary - simple words used

Frequent errors cause blurring

“0” to scripts with no sense from beginning till the end


JAWATANKUASA KURIKULUM SEKOLAH MENENGAH ZON A KUCHING

PEPERIKSAAN PERCUBAAN ZON A SIJIL PELAJARAN MALAYSIA 2008

PERATURAN PEMARKAHAN

BAHASA INGGERIS Kertas 2

Kertas ini mengandungi 7 halaman bercetak

1119/2 Bahasa Inggeris Kertas 2 September 2008 2 ¼ jam

1119/2 @ 2008 Hak Cipta Jawatankuasa Kurikulum Sekolah Menengah Zon A, Kuching [Lihat sebelah SULIT

1119/2




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MARKING SCHEME FOR SECTION A

Question Key / Answer Question Key / Answer

1 C 9 B

2 A 10 A

3 D 11 D

4 B 12 C

5 B 13 C

6 B 14 D

7 C 15 D

8 A

MARKING SCHEME FOR SECTION B

16. Perak Stadium (, Ipoh, Perak) 17. 6 July 2008 / 6.7.2008 / July 6 2008 / 6th July 2008 / 6th of July 2008 / 06.07.2008 /

6/7/2008 / 6.7.08 / 06.07.08 / 6/7/08 18. Port Dickson International Triathlon 2008 19. Rainforest World Music Festival 2008 20. Sarawak Cultural Village (, Santubong, Kuching) 21. (the) Ipoh City Council 22. 1997 23. (1.5 km) swim, (40 km) cycle and (10 km) run 24. Rainforest World Music Festival 2008 25. Ipoh International Run

MARKING SCHEME FOR SECTION C

Please take note of the following:

Award marks for answers with minor grammatical errors and spelling that do not disrupt meaning.

Award full marks for intelligent lifting.

No marks for total lifting that include irrelevant sections of the text.

No marks for answers where meaning is totally unclear or unintelligible.

Please use discretion and good judgment for correct answers that appear different from the suggested answer in the mark scheme in terms of expression and structures used.

Award marks (as indicated) for any reasonable answer(s) to a question that requires a personal response.




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ANSWERS FOR QUESTIONS 26 – 30 26. (to the) Maragaha Tank (near Anuradhapura, a 2200-year-old city in Sri Lanka’s north

central province) [1 mark] 27. (a) (when) he heard a scream [1 mark] (b) (there was) no sign of his wife [1 mark] 28. (a) Bandara spotted/saw churning water and bubbles (nearly three metres away)

[1 mark] (b) (He) dove into the pond, and grabbed hold of the crocodile’s tail (but when the

animal shook him off, he tried again and caught the crocodile around its body) [2 marks]

29. (a) Bandara tickled its/the crocodile’s belly/stomach. / It was tickled on its belly (by

Bandara) [1 mark] (b) Half her right arm was missing/severed. / She lost half of her right arm.

[1 mark] 30. Yes / No with any logical reason(s) [2 marks]

MARKING SCHEME FOR QUESTION 31 (Summary)

Content – 10 marks

Style and Presentation – 5 marks

Total – 15 marks

SUMMARY CONTENT (Each point scores 1 mark up to a maximum of 10 marks)

Bandara shouted Srimathi’s name but she did not answer. Then ….

1. Bandara/he spotted churning water and bubbles 2. he splashed his way towards the disturbance 3. realised that a crocodile had taken his wife 4. he dove into the pond and searched 5. he grabbed hold of the crocodile’s tail (but was shook off) 6. he (tried again and) caught the crocodile around its body 7. he tickled the crocodile’s belly to free 8. he grabbed Srimathi from the crocodile’s jaws 9. threw the crocodile (as far as he could) 10. (when the crocodile attacked again by grabbing her dress,) he tore off the

cloth from his wife’s body 11. he screamed/looked for help 12. he got/sent her to hospital

NOTES ON LANGUAGE The mark for language incorporates 2 categories of writing:

ability to PARAPHRASE

USE OF ENGLISH




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Marks for Style and Presentation are awarded based on the average sum total (to the nearest rounded fraction/decimal) of Paraphrase and Use of English. Annotate as follows: Paraphrase = 5 Use of English = 4 ------- 9 ÷ 2 = 4.5 = 5 marks

STYLE AND PRESENTATION DESCRIPTORS SUMMARY

MARK PARAPHRASE MARK USE OF ENGLISH

5 Excellent

- a sustained attempt to rephrase the text - expression is secure - difficult phrases from text may be substituted

5 Excellent

- language is accurate - occasional errors - sentence structure varied - marked ability to use

original complex syntax - punctuation accurate - spelling correct

throughout

4 Good

- noticeable attempt to rephrase the text - free from stretches of lifting - expression is generally secure

4 Good

- language is almost always accurate

- serious errors will be isolated

- some variation of sentences

- punctuation accurate - spelling largely accurate

3 Fair

- intelligent and selective lifting but limited attempts to rephrase - expression may not always be secure

3 Fair

- language largely accurate

- simple structures dominate

- serious errors not frequent but noticeable

- spelling nearly always accurate

2 Unsatisfa

ctory

- total lifting of text but not a complete transcript - attempts to substitute but only for single words - irrelevant sections more frequent

2 Unsatisfa

ctory

- meaning is not in doubt - serious errors more

frequent - simple structures

accurate but not maintained

- spelling accurate - some irrelevant parts

1 Poor

- more or less a transcript of the text - no originality - irrelevant sections copied

1 Poor

- heavy frequency of errors – hampers reading

- fractured syntax / fragmented

Note: 1. The mark of 0 is awarded if the material used is totally outside the prescribed text (totally

irrelevant) or if student copies the entire passage (no effort in summarising). 2. For ‘more or less a transcript of text’ within the prescribed area of the text, maximum

mark for USE OF ENGLISH is 3.




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MARKING SCHEME FOR SECTION D

General Guidelines for Questions 32 and 33

Full mark(s) for intelligent lifting.

No mark(s) for total lifting that includes irrelevant sections of the extract.

Mark(s) for responses with grammatical and spelling errors that do not distort meaning.

No mark(s) for totally unclear or unintelligible response(s).

No mark(s) if one part of the sentence contradicts the other.

For a question that requires a personal response, any reasonable answer(s) will be awarded marks as indicated.

Remember to use discretion and good judgment for responses that appear different from the suggested ones.

ANSWERS FOR QUESTIONS 32 – 33 32. (a) Good advice from a father to his son in order to be a successful man in the future.

[1 mark]

(b) Not to question people's doubts about you. [1 mark]

(c) Be patient when you are face with difficulties and never give up. [1 mark]

(d) Be calm in times of troubles, be patient, be resilient

(Accept any logical answers) [2 marks]

33 (a) (He was) frantic / (almost) hysterical / in a panic [1 mark]

(b) (Klausner asked the doctor) to come over (to his place / house) [1 mark]

(c) (It made him feel) sick with horror / frightened [1 mark]

(d) Yes, because he is my patient / it is my duty (as his/a doctor) / he needs (my)

help. [2 marks]

(Accept any other reasonable answers)




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MARKING SCHEME FOR QUESTION 34

CONTENT – 10 marks

LANGUAGE – 5 marks

TOTAL – 15 marks

AWARDING CONTENT MARKS : Please refer to the band descriptors below before deciding which band BEST FITS the mark for CONTENT.

SCORE BAND DESCRIPTORS

9 – 10

The response contains a majority of the following :

Response, relevant to specified task

Character is identified

Well supported and linked with evidence / knowledge from text

Main and supporting ideas, relevant to specified task

Ideas, clearly presented, well-organized and easily understood

7 – 8


Response, relevant to the task


Usually supported and linked with knowledge / evidence from text

Mains and supporting ideas, mostly relevant to specified task

Ideas, clear and can be understood

5 – 6


Response, intermittently relevant to specified task


Supported and linked with some knowledge or evidence to specified task

Some ideas, relevant to the specified task

Ideas, generally clear, can be understood but lack organisation

3 – 4


Response, barely relevant to specified task

Character may be identified but response may not likely to be relevant to the specified task

Ideas, hardly relevant to specified task

Ideas, difficult to understand

1 – 2

No understanding of task requirement

Disorganized writing – incoherent; ideas, irrelevant to the specified task

0

Response in other than English

No response

Response, not related to the novel




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AWARDING LANGUAGE MARKS : Please refer to the band descriptors below before deciding which band BEST FITS the mark for LANGUAGE.

MARK USE OF LANGUAGE

5

Language, accurate, with very occasional slips

Occasional minor errors, first draft slips

Sentence structure, varied

Punctuation, accurate and helpful

Spelling, secure throughout response

4

Language, almost always accurate

Sentences, some variation

Punctuation, accurate and generally helpful

Spelling, nearly always secure

3

Language, largely accurate

Simple structures dominate

Serious errors, not frequent although noticeable

Serious errors with sophisticated structures

Punctuation, largely accurate

Spelling, mostly secure

2

Meaning, not in doubt

Serious errors, becoming more frequent

Simple structures, accurate but not sustained

Simple punctuation, usually correct, with occasional separation errors

Spelling, largely accurate but mistakes with more difficult words

0 – 1

Serious errors, heavy frequency, impeding reading

Fractured syntax, more pronounced, with punctuation faltering

Sentence separation errors, frequent


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